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Uniform Debt-Management Services Act - Page 6

   

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SECTION 7. APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION: OBLIGATION TO UPDATE INFORMATION. An applicant or registered provider shall notify the administrator within 10 days after a change in the information specified in Section 5(b)(4) or (6) or 6(1), (3), (6), (12), or (13).

Comment

The cross-referenced sections require evidence of insurance against misconduct; evidence of not-for-profit and tax-exempt status; and disclosure of the name of the applicant, the addresses at which it operates, enforcement actions against the applicant in another state, and the applicant’s standard forms and fee schedules. This section requires prompt notification of any change in this information, and since it applies to the “applicant or registered provider,” the requirement of notification applies both before and after the administrator has issued a certificate of registration. Notification of change in other required information is governed by section 11(b)(4) (Renewal of Registration), which requires notification at the time of renewal of registration. Notification of a change, of course, means that the applicant or registered provider must communicate the new information, not merely that the original information is no longer accurate.

SECTION 8. APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION: PUBLIC INFORMATION.

Except for the information required by Section 6 (7), (14), and (17) and the addresses required by Section 6(4), the administrator shall make the information in an application for registration as a provider available to the public.

Comment

This section preserves the confidentiality of home addresses, financial statements, salaries of the highest-paid employees, and the report on the criminal-records check. While this section prohibits the administrator from disclosing the specified information, it has no effect on the use of judicial process in connection with litigation to enforce the Act. Nor does it limit access to information that is available to the public under other law, such as the law governing tax-exempt entities.

SECTION 9. CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION: ISSUANCE OR DENIAL.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b) and (c), the administrator shall issue a certificate of registration as a provider to a person that complies with Sections 5 and 6.

(b) The administrator may deny registration if:

(1) the application contains information that is materially erroneous or incomplete;

(2) an officer, director, or owner of the applicant has been convicted of a crime, or suffered a civil judgment, involving dishonesty or the violation of state or federal securities laws;

(3) the applicant or any of its officers, directors, or owners has defaulted in the payment of money collected for others; or

(4) the administrator finds that the financial responsibility, experience, character, or general fitness of the applicant or its owners, directors, employees, or agents does not warrant belief that the business will be operated in compliance with this [act].

(c) The administrator shall deny registration if:

(1) the application is not accompanied by the fee established by the administrator; or

(2) [with respect to an applicant that is organized as a not-for-profit entity or has obtained tax-exempt status under the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. Section 501 [, as amended],] the applicant’s board of directors is not independent of the applicant’s employees and agents.

(d) Subject to adjustment of the dollar amount pursuant to Section 32(f), a board of directors is not independent for purposes of subsection (c) if more than one-fourth of its members:

(1) are affiliates of the applicant, as defined in Section 2(2)(A) or (B)(i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi), or (vii); or

(2) after the date 10 years before first becoming a director of the applicant, were employed by or directors of a person that received from the applicant more than $25,000 in either the current year or the preceding year.

Legislative Note: If the state wishes to permit only not-for-profit entities to provide debtmanagement services, in subsection (c)(2) all the bracketed language should be deleted. If the state wishes to permit for-profit entities to provide credit-counseling services, debt-settlement services, or both, the first set of brackets should be deleted.

In states in which the constitution does not permit the phrase, “as amended,” when federal statutes are incorporated into state law, the phrase should be deleted in subsection (c)(2).

Comment

1. Some conduct may justify a lifetime ban from the debt-management-services industry. Examples include some of the conduct described in subsection (b)(2) and (3). Other conduct can be readily corrected, e.g., subsection (b)(1). The introductory language of the subsection (“administrator may deny”) gives the administrator discretion to consider the importance of various items of adverse information about an applicant, such as the precise nature and timing of past criminal conduct. The language of limitation at the end of subsection (b)(2) (“involving dishonesty or the violation of state or federal securities laws”) applies to both criminal convictions and civil judgments. Subsection (b)(4) gives the administrator discretion to consider other relevant information, such as the fact of and reasons for any suspension or revocation of the applicant’s right to provide debt-management services in another state.

2. Paragraphs (2) and (3) do not express any temporal limts and therefore require disclosure of the specified information regardless of when the conviction, judgment, or default occurred.

3. Because providers may have hundreds of employees, most of whom are not in control of the provider, subsection (b) does not include employees in the list of persons in paragraphs (2) and (3) whose conduct justifies the denial of registration. Conversely, paragraph (4) does include employees. It does not explicitly name officers, because officers are included in the category, “employee.” The past misconduct of employees is a basis for action under paragraph (4), because the administrator has the discretion to deny registration if, e.g., a pattern of hiring raises doubts about the likelihood that the applicant will operate the business in compliance with the Act. Unless the administrator by rule requires otherwise, however, paragraph (4) does not require an applicant to disclose the convictions or adverse judgments of its employees. These disclosures are required by section 6(6), but only with respect to the applicant’s officers, directors, owners, and those employees who are authorized to access the trust account.

4. Subsection (c) states circumstances in which denial of registration is mandatory. Paragraph (2) requires that the board of directors of a nonprofit entity be independent of the management of the entity and independent of the creditors for whom the entity is, in a sense, acting as debt collector. If the board of directors is not independent, the administrator must deny registration. Similar to subsection (b)(4), this paragraph does not explicitly mention “officers” because officers are included in the term, “employee.”

5. Since the definition of “affiliate” includes directors (section 2(2)(B)(iii)), subsection (d)(1) omits this subparagraph of the definition of affiliates for purposes of determining the independence of the board.

6. Subsection (d)(2) specifies a period beginning 10 years before a person first becomes a director. It specifies a starting point for the period but no ending point. This means that if a person meets the employee/director test of paragraph (2) while the person is on the applicant’s board of directors, the person is not independent, even if more than 10 years have elapsed since the person first became a member of the applicant’s board.

 

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